My ex-wife had even used another, extremely bad word instead of "person", without him daring to hold her responsible for this in court.
The husband married again, and on his return to Massachusetts, his ex-wife petitioned the Massachusetts court to adjudge him in contempt for failing to make payments for her separate support under the earlier Massachusetts decree.
At one polling situation, an old lady burst into tears and had to be consoled by my ex-wife after she realised her mistake.
That marriage took place a long time ago, there are no surviving children and my ex-wife earns her living as a barrister.
For example, one of my constituents owns the house in which his ex-wife still lives rent-free.
Is he not doing it just to prevent the ex-wife getting more money?
He and his ex-wife agreed that, in our modern society, the child needed a bed of his own.
